A Question of Truth - is there truth in the Bible?

Isaiah 53 and the suffering servant.

Using a literal translation called Young's and the Hebrew text I did an in-depth study in its context. If this is of any use to others and you wish (after checking what I have said) to send it on, please do so.

This chapter has to be read in the context of others such as 52,54 and also 49 to see Isaiah's use of "servant".. The passage is in the context of apostasy, exile and restoration.. Yerusalayim is portrayed as the wife loved by God as maker, redeemer, the God of hosts who fights for her, and a loving husband.(ch.52v3,&9.54v6-8 & v16-17.) Israel is shown as a servant or servants.(ch.49v1-6,ch.52v13, ch.53v11,ch.54v17)

But there is one servant who personifies the innocent ones who are punished together with the guilty, not INSTEAD of them. He suffers the punishment that has come on all for the transgressions of the majority. This could be Isaiah himself, or Jeremiah, Ezekiel or Daniel, all of whom suffered with the results of the sins of Judah, and were despised(not esteemed by their peers}. Although this person suffers pain and death his bruising brings healing and righteousness. The prayers and intercessions were not despised by God. It must be stressed that they still went into exile, and were punished even so, the innocent who had continued to worship Yahweh alone and in the way He desired still suffered because of the others. But because of that many nations were sprinkled with the truth of God's word that went into the diaspora, and many nations knew what they had not known before.

In the Hebrew Jerusalem Bible Verse 15 of ch. 52 reads "startle" many nations – which makes good sense in the context And so Israel became a witness to the nations. (ch.52v15-53v1,ch.53v11) and the many references in Isaiah to Jacob being witness for God especially in ch.43v10,12, ch .44v8. Because of people like the suffering servant there would be a return and a restoration.

This understanding has helped the Jews to come to terms with the terrible suffering they have endured as a people through the centuries just for being Jews. They are to be witnesses to the world and their suffering brings healing to it. The word holocaust begins with "ha olo", which means burnt offering, and from that terrible thing there had to be found a solution for the Jews and the nation and state of Israel was born again.

If this passage really applies to the work of Yehoshua (Jesus) as a substitute sacrifice why is there no mention of substitution in this passage? Why is there very little reference to it in the gospels? The only ones are: Matt.8v17,Mark 15v28, Luke 22v27 &24v46, John 1 v36,&12v38. None of these say his death was a substitution, neither did Yehoshua himself, ever in all the times he warned of his death says so.

Considering the emphasis placed on it today, it seems the gospel writers did not understand the passage in the way it is being used today, especially to evangelise the Jews, who, if they know their own scriptures, and then read the New testament, must be puzzled as to why such passages are used to prove Jesus was Messiah. Even Paul uses it only twice, and both in Romans. The writer to Hebrews once, James not at all, I Peter three times in ch.2, and John in Revelation three times as in the gospel as a lamb slain. (But since seeing that the word used for "lamb" is the same as a word for "word" in Hebrew that could have a different meaning now)

Here is an alternative translation of Isaiah 53 by Vadim Cherny:

http://www.Yeshayahu.com (external link - opens in new window)


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